Question for those who know...If a vial of 30mg tests at 36mg is one to assume all vials from a batch tested are the same? And being over 30 would one adjust the bac water to get the dose correct? I mean it seems to me that you would but I'm new to this and am trying to find out the consensus. 😬 🫡
Unclear on the concept...
- Thread starter JoonyO
- Start date
byefatlicia
GLP-1 Enthusiast
We were just talking about this. follow this link🙂
glp1forum.com
Lab results meaning
I am seeing on this test several different mg and percentages. Not trying to be dumb but I am assuming that they tested 4 different vials and each contained the amounts shown correct? And if that is the case when I am using a pep calculator should I just round up the number to say 12mg to make...
glp1forum.com
I read it, tyvm. 😀I don't see the question I have being addressed there though. It only addressed the 4 vials tested in that test with CLOSE to the 12mg being in each. In THAT CASE I, too, would just call it 12 and be done with it.
The way I read mine ( 36 out of 30 ) is almost 20% over. No?
Or am I stupider than I thought?
The way I read mine ( 36 out of 30 ) is almost 20% over. No?
Or am I stupider than I thought?
peptideusername
Moderator
You're right on the overage math, but in that other post, we don't really know what the vial is supposed to be.
If it's supposed to be 10mg, then theirs is 20% over as well. The difference being that they had four vials tested, and that gives a lot of insight into the variability (or lack there of) between vials of the same kit/batch. With those results, you can create a trend line and be fairly confident to use 12. (As long as it's third party tests and not from the vendor)
When testing only one vial, it's just a single data point. No trend line.
If you were to hypothetically test four of your own vials and they varied from 30-36 mg between vials, you could be under dosing by that 20% some of the time using just that one real result you have. On the flip side, if the tests varied from 35-37 mg, your 36mg result would be accurate. But you can't really know that with one data point.
That said, I'm very familiar with the cost of testing these and it's not cheap or easy to test and give up even one, let alone a bunch of vials right after you've just bought them.
byefatlicia
GLP-1 Enthusiast
That is correct. The vials were supposed to be 10mg but were filled to 12ish. So, the answer to @JoonyO is: The advise we gave was to go with the tested amount unless the OP wanted an extra spicy dose. OP said no, it might result in adverse bodily activity. (paraphrased) 🙂
CrimsonTaco47
GLP-1 Apprentice
Personal anecdotal suggestion here…when I’m starting a new vial I usually assume it’s what it’s supposed to be (if it’s supposed to be 20mg I assume it’s 20mg) then when calculating out my desired dose, I do just slightly under what I’d actually want. So if I want 4mg per dose and that’s 40units, I’d do like 35-38 units for my first dose of that vial and see how it feels. If it doesn’t give the strength of effects I want, I increase to 40units. And play with the numbers every time based on how I felt. It’s like cooking vs baking lol measure with your heart darlin but that’s why I buy the 30 and 50 unit syringes because small incremental changes like that are easier to measure. I only do that for my GLP of choice though (Reta for me) but if it’s glow or selank or something I just assume it is what it says and use as planned…right or wrong 🤷♀️
peptideusername
Moderator
Some perspective: the amount you're changing by shorting 2-5 units out of 40 is a change of .2-.5mg of 4mg. That just means you're dosing at 3.5mg or 3.8mg. So it's basically a rounding error.
And with a signature like yours, maybe you could reconsider giving out suggestions for now? 🙃
